Clive Smaldon

Not HMRC...currently...buy barn/warehouse, convert barn/warehouse in to a residential property, sell barn/warehouse...liable to CGT. Buy barn/warehouse, convert barn/warehouse, live in barn/warehouse as main home, becomes PPR, no CGT on sale if live in entire property and if falls in PPR rules when sold (legislation can/does change). If any part of the property remains commercial (liable to business rates rather than council tax) the situation will be different.

Not HMRC, if not married/civil partnership when partner became part owner thats an event for CGT. If this was when you still lived in it thats fine as would be covered by your PPR to that point, so nothing due at that point, if became part owner after you moved out then should have declared CGT at that point and worked out your gain by reference to period after moved out. You get PPR for period based on gain from purchase to moving out, fraction of gain liable from then. Your partners cost (if not married/civil partnership) is 50% value when became owner from, if married/civil partner then would take 50% original cost...so calculation depends on married/civil partner or not, and then when partner became part owner (and if was after you have moved out you need to rectify the position re that first, otherwise you cant submit right figures now), if was when still lived there then no issue re that but needs to be shown in calculation

Not HMRC...if its a chargeable event on an assurance linked bond then taking income would be liable to income tax with top slicing relief covering the period, often with a basic rate credit...all depends on the type of the bond, how long held, whether it comes with basic rate tax credit and whether qualifies for top slicing...thats the current considerations, rules change. If its an asset you can sell on for a capital sum, then thats capital gain

Not HMRC, keyword here is ...person has "chosen"...therefore under the terms of the account it appears the option was there to have the interest paid in to that account or another one or have something else happen re the interest, therefore it may be liable in year rather than on maturity. https://www.gov.uk/hmrc-internal-manuals/savings-and-investment-manual/saim2440

PIBS? Accrued income? This question was solely about property (which you answered down to line 5)...why PIBS/Accrued income added?...nothing to do with it...

HMRC...you are missing the point, the questioner has paid Tax/NI by operating PAYE against his own self employment, this is not allowable/possible, as a sole trader he is the business, the business is him, an individual cannot employ themselves where there is no ltd company and it is the PAYE situation that needs to be addressed and closed down not making an adjustment to self employment.

Not HMRC...if you have sold all of the goods then the £3k received is the turnover (income), the original cost of £3k is the cost of sales (goods for resale), the shipping and packing costs are also allowable costs for postage etc, meaning you have a loss for the year. If you have not sold ALL of the original goods purchased you need to value the goods remaining and deduct this from the original £3k spent. There will be no tax to pay if all sold, and possibly not if part sold (depends on any value of goods remaining) but you must enter this information on the self employed pages of the SA. You also complete the property pages as normal and any other pages (employment, bank interest received details etc etc)...all on one SA form with additional pages as needed.

Not HMRC...ONLY where relief has not been given via PAYE, most pension schemes treat pension payments as made from gross pay so higher rate relief is already given by removing the contribution from taxable pay (P.60 taxable pay figure less than gross salary). You ONLY claim higher rate relief for pension schemes where payments taken AFTER tax is calculated (a minority of schemes)...local govnt is not likely to be an after tax scheme, though anything is possible. It doesnt increase tax allowance codes, it extends basic rate bands.

Not HMRC...this makes no difference...example, self employed person paying in to a SIPP is a private pension, only possible because of self employed earnings, but its not "occupational"...the DTA follows most others, pensions are generally assessable in the country of tax residence, regardless of where paid from, unless "governmental" where the situation may be different...and this is the case here re the "private" pension, it is not liable in the UK, it is liable in the Phillipines, without relevant previous earnings it wouldnt have been possible to contribute so it is treated as if "occupational".